daveto
Active Member
http://opinion.financialpost.com/2010/07/21/homeowners-more-financially-fit/
Consider the above linked opinion piece from the Financial Post.
It references the following press release
http://www.newswire.ca/en/releases/archive/July2010/20/c5274.html
which describes the results of a study by Genworth Financial (a mortgage insurer - hardly an independent source)
The conclusion of the study is that homeowners are financial better off than non-homeowners. To which I respond, of course and so what??
The question should not be, "are homeowners better off than non-homeowners"...the question is "are homeowners better off than non-homeowners with equal incomes" or "are homeowners better off BECAUSE they are homeowners"
A classic example of an abuse of statistics to mislead the reader, and then disguising the conclusions of a biased source as objective "news" in the MSM.
Consider the above linked opinion piece from the Financial Post.
It references the following press release
http://www.newswire.ca/en/releases/archive/July2010/20/c5274.html
which describes the results of a study by Genworth Financial (a mortgage insurer - hardly an independent source)
The conclusion of the study is that homeowners are financial better off than non-homeowners. To which I respond, of course and so what??
The question should not be, "are homeowners better off than non-homeowners"...the question is "are homeowners better off than non-homeowners with equal incomes" or "are homeowners better off BECAUSE they are homeowners"
A classic example of an abuse of statistics to mislead the reader, and then disguising the conclusions of a biased source as objective "news" in the MSM.